I commonly play grammar by ear (I never bothered come formally examine the rules), so i don't recognize why

"Thank you for inviting my family and I" and "Thank you because that inviting me and also my family" both sound exactly while

"Thank you because that inviting I and my family" and "Thank you for inviting my family and me" both sound incorrect.

You are watching: Me and my family or my family and i

The i vs me ascendancy doesn't really help; "Thank you because that inviting me" sounds correct "Thank you because that inviting I" is clear wrong.

Can anyone assist with this?


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"Thank you because that inviting my family and me"

Two things room going top top here.

1> always put yourself behind the other human being in a compound. Therefore I, me, etc. Constantly comes behind the other civilization - you, them, they, mine friends, my family, ... The perform is unlimited -- in English, you don't counting for as lot as the world you're linking to with a conjunction.

The 2nd problem is really easier. Just think what you would say if over there wasn't other (someone) else linked to it. Would certainly you ever say, "Thank you because that inviting I"? If not, climate don't usage 'I' just because they invite someone else too.


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level 2
· 9y

I've been making use of 'My friend and I' because that the longest time, mainly since I was told that if you take the other human being out of the sentence it transforms the structure totally since you lose a subject/noun etc. Have the right to someone please clarify this?


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level 1
· 9y
What girlfriend really require to understand is that "I" is for once you room doing the verb and "me" is for once someone is law the verb come you. Because the inviting is being excellent to you, it's gotta it is in "me."


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level 1
· 9y

Well. What's keep going is that the verb needs something in the objective situation to come after ~ it. ‘My family’ is the exact same whether it's topic or object, and also if you usage ‘my family and I’ as the object of a verb, because the family bit comes very first it sort of ‘shields’ the ns from sounding too strange. (It is still wrong, in traditional written English, however it's the sort of thing you will hear a lot in speech.) vice versa, if ‘I’ comes instantly after the verb it's obvious straight away that it requirements to it is in in the objective form ‘me’.


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level 2
· 9y

This is what threw me off, thanks!


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· 9y

If you pare the sentence under to the essentials, the rules become clearer. As you noted, "thank you for inviting me" is correct due to the fact that me is an object, not a subject. Thus, "thank you because that inviting mine family, friends, poodle, pet fish and me" is additionally correct.


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· 9y · edited 9y

We space talking about the corresponding indirect situation forms of what is "my family and also I" and "I and also my family" in the (unstressed) straight case. "My family" doesn't change anyway, yet the indirect case form of "I" is "me".

Now the concern is what happens when we placed the two together and also we really want the indirect situation of the conjunction. Languages differ in how they take care of this. English and also the major European languages placed both parts in the indirect case prior to joining them. Therefore the correct develops are " mine family and me" as well as " me and also my family". This is every there is to say from an education prescriptive suggest of view.

Nevertheless, so countless native speaker of English agree through your initial intuitions, that we cannot insurance claim that " my family and also I" is totally wrong. What is more, far-reaching numbers of people have been talking like this for centuries. Plainly there is some alternate grammatical pattern at work.

I guess there are countless ways the phenomenon deserve to potentially be explained. To get more information, that is best to change "my family" by something because that which the straight object kind is not the same to the indirect object form. A good example is " him/he and also me/I" / " me/I and also him/he", and also with the there room some fascinating phenomena. See http://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=3469 because that details and for a conversation of feasible explanation.

My explanation 1, which is comparable to several of those stated in the Language log post, claims that your grammatical rule goes about as follows:

Direct thing or indirect, stressed or unstressed, in English it's all the exact same (immutable) except for personal pronouns.

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When you join words through "and", the result is never ever a an individual pronoun, even when some of the constituents are an individual pronouns. Therefore, even facility constructions involving a pronoun room immutable. One of two people "my family and I" is correct regardless that case, or "my family and me" is correct regardless that case, or both room correct regardless of case. I.e., if one have the right to be used for X in "inviting X", climate it deserve to be provided in "X invited" and vice versa.

Now we have decoupled the situation of "I"/"me" from the paper definition in which "my family and also I/me" occurs, however we need to still choose in between "I" and "me". A standard choice in any Indo-European language would be the direct object case, for this reason "I". This is the obvious selection if you have a little of official grammar education. ~ above the other hand, English also uses the indirect thing case, i.e. "me", together a stressed different of the straight object case. (E.g. In titles. Usually in the same instances where French offers "moi" instead of "je".) therefore that's likewise a perfectly great choice. In general, "me" is an ext idiomatic however is rejected by many pedants who just deny the English has actually stressed variants that pronouns and also prescribe: "Who is that? - I!"

My explanation also tells us why many native speakers, especially children, speak things favor "Me and my brother went fishing."

My different explanation states that for part speakers, when a complicated phrase is in the indirect case, only the very first constituent gets marked as indirect case and the rest stays in straight case. This predicts "invite him and she" and "invite her and he" as 'correct'. If any kind of native speaker yes, really feels the these are correct (I doubt it), you re welcome speak up!

(This alternate explanation is not completely insane. E.g. In German, when you placed a string of adjectives in former of a noun that is in the dative case, then only the very first adjective -- or the post preceding it -- is in the datil case, and also the others room in the nominative case. That's comparable and even weirder.)